I’ve been teaching through Hebrews in Wednesday night Bible study for several weeks. Not sure if I’ve heard this before, but the question occurred to me as I studied Hebrews 4:12, “Is this “word” referring to the Scriptures or to Christ?
There is precedence for the “logos” (word) being used to name Christ (John 1). The context (Hebrews 1-4) is all about Christ, so it would fit contextually. Also, v. 13 refers to “his sight” and “him with whom we have to do.” It would seem that the masculine singular pronouns used are referring to a person rather than a thing which would require “it.”
I’ve always heard this verse applied to Scripture, but what do you think? Is it either, or, both, and what difference would it make to the exposition of the passage?